AIM 3.11 ANAESTHETICS

Questions are often asked about flying after anaesthetics. With spinal or general anaesthetics, or with serious operations, pilots should not fly until their doctor says it is safe to do so. It is difficult to generalize about local anaesthetics used in minor operations or dental work. Allergic reactions to these, if they occur, are early and by the time the anaesthetic has worn off the risk of side effects has passed. However, after extensive procedures (such as the removal of several wisdom teeth), common sense suggests waiting at least 24 hr before flying.

AIM AIR 3.2.2 Carbon Monoxide

AIM AIR 3.4 SCUBA DIVING

Although normally decompression sickness does not occur below 20 000 ft ASL (6 100 m), people who fly after scuba diving may develop the symptoms at much lower altitudes. Atmospheric pressure beneath the water increases by one atmosphere for every 33 ft (10 m) of descent. Divers who breathe pressurized air for more than a few minutes supersaturate their tissues with nitrogen. For this reason, as the aircraft ascends, nitrogen bubble formation maytakeplace,causingthebends. Afterdivesoflessthan33ft (1 atmosphere pressure), where decompression stops were not required, flights up to altitudes of 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m) should be avoided for 12 hr. Where decompression stops have been required while returning to the surface, the interval should be 24 hr. For flights above 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m), the interval is 24 hr regardless of the type of dive, as even pressurized aircraft may lose cabin pressurization.

From the Ground Up: Coriolis Effect

AIM COM 4.7 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) 

The DME slant range error is the greatest when the airplane is at a high altitude close to or over the ground station. Moreover, slant range error also affects groundspeed and time-to-staion displays when you are close to the station.

AIM COM 4.8 TACTICAL AIR NAVIGATION (TACAN)

Tactical air navigation aid (TACAN) is a navigation aid (NAVAID) used primarily by the military for en route, non-precision approaches (NPAs) and other military applications. It provides azimuth in the form of radials and slant distance in nautical miles (NM) from the ground station. The system operates in the ultrahigh frequency (UHF) range with the frequencies identified by channel number.

TACAN users may obtain distance information from a distance measuring equipment (DME)  that is paired with the VHF omnidirectional range (VOR). This TACAN paired channel number is published in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) for every VOR/DME facility.

CAUTION:
Only DME information is being received by the TACAN avionics. Any apparent radial information obtained through the TACAN avionics from a VOR/DME facility can only be false signals.

From the Ground Up

AIM 2.7.3

When weather conditions are below VFR minima, a pilot operating VFR may request special VFR (SVFR) authorization in order to enter the control zone. This authorization is normally obtained through the local tower or FSS, and must be obtained before SVFR is attempted within a control zone. ATC will issue an SVFR authorization, traffic and weather conditions permitting, only upon a request for SVFR from a pilot. SVFR will not be initiated by ATS. Once having received SVFR authorization, the pilot continues to remain responsible for avoiding other aircraft and weather conditions beyond the pilot’s own flight capabilities and the capabilities of the aircraft.

Special VFR Flight

602.117 An aircraft may be operated in special VFR flight within a control zone if

(b) flight visibility is not less than one mile, where the aircraft is not a helicopter, or

(c) the aircraft is operated clear of cloud and with visual reference to the surface at all times; and

(d) authorization to do so has been requested and obtained from the appropriate air traffic control unit.

(2) Where aerodrome traffic permits, an air traffic control unit shall authorize a pilot-in-command to operate an aircraft in special VFR flight within a control zone if

(a) the pilot-in-command requests authorization to operate the aircraft in special VFR flight;

(b) when reported, ground visibility within the control zone is not less than

(i) one mile, where the aircraft is not a helicopter

(c) the aircraft is equipped with radiocommunication equipment capable of maintaining communication with the appropriate air traffic control unit; and

(d) the aircraft is not a helicopter and is operated during the night, and the authorization is for the purpose of allowing the aircraft to land at the destination aerodrome.

Operation of Aircraft in Icing Conditions

702.24 When icing conditions are reported to exist or are forecast to be encountered along the route of flight, no person shall authorize a flight or its continuation or conduct a take-off or continue a flight in an aircraft:

Even if the aircraft is adequately equipped to operate in icing conditions, if, in the opinion of the PIC, the safety of the flight might be adversely affected.

ECG for a CAT 1 medical:
Under 30: ECG on initial exam
Between 30-40: ECG within 24 months
Above 40: ECG within 12 months

Medical validity period for CAT1 medical:
Flying 2 crew, commercially, with passengers and single pilot without passengers: Normal 12 month validity
Over 40 years of age in a single pilot operating with passengers: then only 6 months
60 years or older: then only 6 months

Reference: CAR 404.04

(6.1) The validity period of a medical certificate for a commercial pilot licence, a multi-crew pilot licence — aeroplane and an airline transport pilot licence, if the holder of the licence is acting as a flight crew member for hire or reward, is 12 months.

(6.2) However, the validity period of a medical certificate referred to in subsection (6.1) is reduced to 6 months if

(a) the holder of the licence is 40 years of age or older and is conducting a single-pilot operation with passengers on board; or

(b) the holder of the licence is 60 years of age or older.

(6.3) The holder of a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot licence may exercise the privileges of a private pilot licence until the end of the applicable validity period for the private pilot licence.

Use of Oxygen

605.32 (1) Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes above 10,000 feet ASL but not exceeding 13,000 feet ASL, each crew member shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes in duration.

(2) Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes above 13,000 feet ASL, each person on board the aircraft shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for the duration of the flight at those altitudes.

(3) The pilot at the flight controls of an aircraft shall use an oxygen mask if

(a) the aircraft is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks and is operated at or above flight level 250; or

(b) the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks and is operated above flight level 410.

Maximum Flight Time

700.27 (1) An air operator shall not assign flight time to a flight crew member, and a flight crew member shall not accept such an assignment, if the member’s total flight time will, as a result, exceed

(a) 112 hours in any 28 consecutive days;

(b) 300 hours in any 90 consecutive days;

(c) 1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive days; or

(d) in the case of a single-pilot operation, 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours.

(2) For the purpose of subsection (1), a flight crew member’s flight time includes

(a) the flight time accumulated from other flight operations; and

(b) the total flight time of a flight with an augmented flight crew.

Maximum Number of Hours of Work

700.29 (1) An air operator shall not assign a flight duty period to a flight crew member, and a flight crew member shall not accept such an assignment, if, as a result, the member’s number of hours of worked will exceed

(a) 2,200 hours in any 365 consecutive days;

(b) 192 hours in any 28 consecutive days;

(c) 60 hours in any 7 consecutive days if the air operator has provided the member with the following time free from duty:

(i) 1 single day free from duty in any 168 consecutive hours, and

(ii) 4 single days free from duty in any 672 consecutive hours; or

(d) 70 hours in any 7 consecutive days if the air operator has provided 120 consecutive hours free from duty, including 5 consecutive local nights’ rest, in any 504 consecutive hours and if

(i) the member is not assigned early duty, late duty or night duty,

(ii) the member is not assigned a flight duty period greater than 12 hours, and

(iii) the member’s maximum number of hours of work is 24 hours in any consecutive 48 hours.

Safety Management System

107.03 A safety management system shall include

(a) a safety policy on which the system is based;

(b) a process for setting goals for the improvement of aviation safety and for measuring the attainment of those goals;

(c) a process for identifying hazards to aviation safety and for evaluating and managing the associated risks;

(d) a process for ensuring that personnel are trained and competent to perform their duties;

(e) a process for the internal reporting and analyzing of hazards, incidents and accidents and for taking corrective actions to prevent their recurrence;

(f) a document containing all safety management system processes and a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities with respect to them;

(g) a quality assurance program;

(h) a process for conducting periodic reviews or audits of the safety management system and reviews or audits, for cause, of the safety management system; and

(i) any additional requirements for the safety management system that are prescribed under these Regulations.

ECG for a CAT 1 medical:
Under 30: ECG on initial exam
Between 30-40: ECG within 24 months
Above 40: ECG within 12 months

Medical validity period for CAT1 medical:
Flying 2 crew, commercially, with passengers and single pilot without passengers: Normal 12 month validity
Over 40 years of age in a single pilot operating with passengers: then only 6 months
60 years or older: then only 6 months

Reference: CAR 404.04

(6.1) The validity period of a medical certificate for a commercial pilot licence, a multi-crew pilot licence — aeroplane and an airline transport pilot licence, if the holder of the licence is acting as a flight crew member for hire or reward, is 12 months.

(6.2) However, the validity period of a medical certificate referred to in subsection (6.1) is reduced to 6 months if

(a) the holder of the licence is 40 years of age or older and is conducting a single-pilot operation with passengers on board; or

(b) the holder of the licence is 60 years of age or older.

(6.3) The holder of a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot licence may exercise the privileges of a private pilot licence until the end of the applicable validity period for the private pilot licence.

Appendix C - Out of Phase Tasks and Equipment Maintenance Requirements

Altimetry Devices
(a) Altimeters and other Altimetry devices installed in aircraft operating under Instrument Flight Rules, or under visual flight rules in Class B and C Airspace or Class C and D Airspace that is designated as "Transponder Airspace" shall be calibrated at intervals not exceeding 24 months

Controlled Rest on Flight Deck

700.72 (1) A flight crew member shall not take a controlled rest on the flight deck of an aircraft that is operated by an air operator unless:

(a) the rest is 45 minutes or less, is taken during the cruise portion of the flight and is completed at least 30 minutes before the scheduled beginning of the descent;

(b) no other flight crew member is taking a rest at that time; and

(c) at least two flight crew members remain on the flight deck.

(2) Before taking a controlled rest on the flight deck, a flight crew member shall

(a) transfer their duties to a flight crew member who is not taking a rest;

(b) review the status of the flight, including any specific duties to be performed during the rest;

(c) review the wake-up criteria; and

(d) advise the flight attendants of the start and end times of the rest.

(3) A flight crew member who takes a controlled rest on the flight deck shall not assume any duties, and no other flight crew member shall transfer any duties to them, until 15 minutes after the end of the rest.

(4) When a flight crew member returns to duty, another flight crew member shall provide them with an operational briefing.

Flight Data Recorder

605.33 

(1) This section applies in respect of the following multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft:

(a) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 30 or fewer passengers, configured for 10 or more passenger seats and manufactured after October 11, 1991;

(b) an aeroplane in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 30 or fewer passengers and configured for 20 to 30 passenger seats;

(c) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of more than 30 passengers; and

(d) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of cargo only

VFR Flight in Class C Airspace

601.08 (1) Subject to subsection (2), no person operating a VFR aircraft shall enter Class C airspace unless the person receives a clearance to enter from the appropriate air traffic control unit before entering the airspace.

(2) The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft that is not equipped with radiocommunication equipment capable of two-way communication with the appropriate air traffic control unit may, during daylight in VMC, enter Class C airspace if the pilot-in-command receives authorization to enter from the appropriate air traffic control unit before entering the airspace.

(3) Class C airspace becomes Class E airspace when the appropriate air traffic control unit is not in operation.

AIM RAC 2.8.3

CAR 401.04

No holder of a Canadian pilot licence endorsed with an instrument rating or to which is attached instrument rating privileges shall exercise the privileges of the instrument rating unless the holder has successfully completed, within the 24 months preceding the flight, one of the following:

(a) an instrument rating flight test in an aircraft or in a Level B, C or D simulator of the same group as the aircraft;

(b) a Canadian Armed Forces instrument rating flight test;

(c) an instrument proficiency check

2.10 ALTIMETER SETTING REGION

The altimeter setting region is an airspace of defined dimensions below 18 000 feet ASL (see CAR 602.35 and Figure 2.9) within which the following altimeter setting procedures apply:

Departure – Prior to takeoff, the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if that altimeter setting is not available, to the elevation of the aerodrome.

En route – During flight the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or, where such stations are separated by more than 150 NM, the nearest station to the route of flight.

Arrival – When approaching the aerodrome of intended landing the altimeter shall be set to the current aerodrome altimeter setting, if available.

2.11 STANDARD PRESSURE REGION

The standard pressure region includes all airspace over Canada at or above 18 000 feet ASL (the high-level airspace), and all low-level airspace that is outside of the lateral limit of the altimeter setting region. Within the standard pressure region the following flight procedures apply;

Departure – Prior to takeoff the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if the altimeter setting is not available, to the elevation of that aerodrome. Immediately prior to reaching the flight level at which flight is to be conducted, the altimeter shall be set to standard pressure (29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs). If the planned cruising flight level is above FL 180, resetting the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs at 18 000 ft ASL is acceptable and meets the requirement of CAR 602.36.

Arrival – Prior to commencing descent with the intention to land, the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing, if available. If a holding procedure is conducted, the altimeter shall not be set to the current aerodrome altimeter setting until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted. Pilots of aircraft descending from cruising flight levels above FL 180 may reset altimeters to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing when approaching FL 180 provided no holding or cruise level flight below FL 180 is to be made or anticipated.

AIM 9.13 INSTRUMENTS FLIGHT RULES (IFR) PROCEDURES AT AN UNCONTROLLED AERODROME IN UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE

Pilots operating under IFR in uncontrolled airspace should, whenever practical, monitor 126.7 MHz and broadcast their intentions on this frequency immediately prior to changing altitude or commencing an approach.

When arriving at an aerodrome where another frequency is designated as the MF, descent and approach intentions should be broadcast on 126.7 MHz before changing to the MF. If conflicting IFR traffic becomes evident, this change should be delayed until the conflict is resolved. Once established on the MF, the pilot shall make the reports listed in the subsection above.

A straight-in landing from an IFR approach should not be used at an uncontrolled aerodrome where air-ground advisory is not available to provide the wind direction and speed and runway condition reports required to conduct a safe landing.

Reference: 704.34 Briefing of Passengers

(1) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that passengers are given a safety briefing in accordance with the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(2) If the safety briefing referred to in subsection (1) is insufficient for a passenger because of that passenger’s physical, sensory or comprehension limitations, seat orientation or responsibility for another person on board the aircraft, the pilot-in-command shall ensure that the passenger is given an individual safety briefing

Also, that briefing is:

(a) is appropriate to the passenger’s needs; and

(b) meets the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(3) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that, in the event of an emergency and where time and circumstances permit, all passengers are given an emergency briefing in accordance with the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(4) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that each passenger who is seated next to an emergency exit is made aware of how to operate that exit.

CAR 602.104

The PIC of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report

(i)  5 minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing,

(ii)  when commencing a circling manoeuvre, and

(iii)  as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure; and

Report  the aircraft’s position:

(i)  when passing the fix outbound, where the pilot-in- command intends to conduct a procedure turn or, if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft first intercepts the final approach course,

(ii)  when passing the final approach fix or three minutes before the estimated time of landing where no final approach fix exists, and

(iii)  on final approach.

As soon as information is received that an aircraft is overdue, operators or owners should immediately alert the nearest joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC) or any air traffic service (ATS) unit, giving all known details. The alerting call should not be delayed until after a small-scale private search has taken place. Such a delay could deprive those in need of urgent assistance at a time when it is most needed.

CAR 705.59 En-route Limitations with Two Engines Inoperative

No person shall operate an aeroplane having three or more engines unless:

(a) all points along the intended track are located at a distance that can be flown in 90 minutes or less, with all engines operating at cruise power, from an aerodrome where the requirements of section 705.60 can be complied with; or

(b) the weight of the aeroplane is not greater than the weight that, according to the two-engines-inoperative enroute net flight path data shown in the aircraft flight manual, will allow the aeroplane to clear vertically, by at least 2,000 feet, all terrain and obstructions within five nautical miles on either side of the intended track, and thereafter to continue flight to an aerodrome where the requirements of section 705.60 can be complied with.

The following factors shall be taken into account after the failure of two engines:

(a) the effects of wind and temperature on the net flight path; and

(b) the effects of fuel jettisoning, where the jettisoning is conducted in accordance with procedures set out in the company operations manual and sufficient fuel remains to arrive at the destination aerodrome at 1,500 feet AGL with a fuel reserve sufficient to fly for 15 minutes thereafter at cruise power.

705.58 En-route Limitations with One Engine Inoperative

No person shall conduct a take-off in an aeroplane if the weight of the aeroplane is greater than the weight that will allow the aeroplane to attain, with any engine inoperative, a net flight path that:

(a) has a positive slope at 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within 5 NM on either side of the intended track, at all points along the route or planned diversion therefrom; or

(b) will permit flight from the cruising altitude to an aerodrome where the requirements of CAR 705.60 can be complied with, and clears vertically, by at least 2,000 feet, all terrain and obstructions within 5 NM on either side of the intended track.

The following factors shall be taken into account after an engine failure:

(a) the effects of wind and temperature on the net flight path; and

(b) the effects of fuel jettisoning, where the jettisoning is conducted in accordance with procedures set out in the company operations manual and sufficient fuel remains to complete a landing with the required fuel reserves.

CAR 605.22 Seat and Safety Belt Requirements

No person shall operate an aircraft, unless it is equipped with a seat and safety belt for each person on board the aircraft other than an infant.

Dispatch Limitations: Landing at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes

705.60 (1) Subject to subsection (3), no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aeroplane unless

(a) the weight of the aeroplane on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full-stop landing

(i) in the case of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, within 60 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA), or

(ii) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane, within 70 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA); and

(b) the weight of the aeroplane on landing at the alternate aerodrome will allow a full-stop landing

(i) in the case of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, within 60 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA), and

(ii) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane, within 70 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA).

(2) In determining whether an aeroplane can be dispatched or a take-off can be conducted in accordance with subsection (1), the following shall be taken into account:

(a) the pressure-altitude at the destination aerodrome and at the alternate aerodrome;

(b) not more than 50 per cent of the reported headwind component or not less than 150 per cent of the reported tailwind component; and

(c) that the aeroplane must be landed on a suitable runway, considering the wind speed and direction, the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain.

(3) Where conditions at the destination aerodrome at the time of take-off do not permit compliance with paragraph (2)(c), an aeroplane may be dispatched and a take-off conducted if the alternate aerodrome designated in the operational flight plan permits, at the time of take-off, compliance with paragraph (1)(b) and subsection (2).

Dispatch Limitations: Wet Runway — Turbo-jet-powered Aeroplanes

705.61 (1) Subject to subsection (2), when weather reports or forecasts indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival, no air operator shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane unless the landing distance available (LDA) at the destination aerodrome is at least 115 per cent of the landing distance required pursuant to paragraph 705.60(1)(a).

(2) The landing distance available on a wet runway may be shorter than that required by subsection (1), but not shorter than that required by section 705.60, if the aircraft flight manual includes specific information about landing distances on wet runways.

Dispatch Limitations: Landing at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes

705.60 (1) Subject to subsection (3), no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aeroplane unless

(a) the weight of the aeroplane on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full-stop landing

(i) in the case of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, within 60 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA), or

(ii) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane, within 70 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA); and

(b) the weight of the aeroplane on landing at the alternate aerodrome will allow a full-stop landing

(i) in the case of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, within 60 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA), and

(ii) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane, within 70 per cent of the landing distance available (LDA).

(2) In determining whether an aeroplane can be dispatched or a take-off can be conducted in accordance with subsection (1), the following shall be taken into account:

(a) the pressure-altitude at the destination aerodrome and at the alternate aerodrome;

(b) not more than 50 per cent of the reported headwind component or not less than 150 per cent of the reported tailwind component; and

(c) that the aeroplane must be landed on a suitable runway, considering the wind speed and direction, the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain.

(3) Where conditions at the destination aerodrome at the time of take-off do not permit compliance with paragraph (2)(c), an aeroplane may be dispatched and a take-off conducted if the alternate aerodrome designated in the operational flight plan permits, at the time of take-off, compliance with paragraph (1)(b) and subsection (2).

Dispatch Limitations: Wet Runway — Turbo-jet-powered Aeroplanes

705.61 (1) Subject to subsection (2), when weather reports or forecasts indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival, no air operator shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane unless the landing distance available (LDA) at the destination aerodrome is at least 115 per cent of the landing distance required pursuant to paragraph 705.60(1)(a).

(2) The landing distance available on a wet runway may be shorter than that required by subsection (1), but not shorter than that required by section 705.60, if the aircraft flight manual includes specific information about landing distances on wet runways.

When operating above 13,000 ft ASL. Once before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter.

Extended Range (ER) or ETOPS Operations

Extended range operations are those operations conducted over a specified route that contain a point further than 60 minutes flying time at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed (under standard conditions in still air) from an adequate airport.

V₁ is the Takeoff decision speed also known as the Critical Engine failure recognition speed. 

It is maximum speed during the takeoff roll at which the pilot can take the first action to abandon the takeoff and stop the aircraft. As a consequence, the "stop" decision must be made before actually reaching V₁.

Above V₁, the takeoff must be continued unless there is reason to believe that the aircraft will not fly. An engine failure identified before V₁ should always result in a rejected takeoff.

Reference: AIM Reportable Aviation Incident

Flight Data Recorder

605.33 

(1) This section applies in respect of the following multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft:

(a) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 30 or fewer passengers, configured for 10 or more passenger seats and manufactured after October 11, 1991;

(b) an aeroplane in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 30 or fewer passengers and configured for 20 to 30 passenger seats;

(c) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of more than 30 passengers; and

(d) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of cargo only

CAR 605.34 Cockpit Voice Recorder

(1) This section applies in respect of the following aircraft:

(a) a multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft that is configured for six or more passenger seats and is operated by two flight crew members, regardless of the minimum crew requirements set out in the aircraft type certificate or the subpart under which the aircraft is operated;

(b) a turbine-powered aeroplane that was type-certificated on or after January 1, 2016 and for which more than one flight crew member is required by the aircraft type certificate or by the subpart under which the aeroplane is operated;

(c) a turbine-powered aeroplane with an MCTOW of more than 27 000 kg (59,525 pounds) that was type-certificated after September 30, 1969 and was manufactured before January 1, 1987;

(d) a large aeroplane that was manufactured on or after January 1, 1987

Altitude Alerting System or Device

605.36 No person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane unless it is equipped with an altitude alerting system or device that conforms to the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards.

The above statement does not apply in respect of an aeroplane without a serviceable altitude alerting system or device if:

(a) a MEL has been approved by the Minister and the aeroplane is operated in accordance with the minimum equipment list; or

(b) a MEL has NOT been approved by the Minister in respect of the operator of the aeroplane and the aeroplane is operated

(i) from the place where the operator or pilot-in-command takes possession of the aeroplane to a place where the aeroplane can be equipped with such a system or device,

(ii) for the sole purpose of conducting a flight test, a competency check, a pilot proficiency check or flight crew member training, or

(iii) where the system or device becomes unserviceable after take-off, until it reaches an aerodrome at which the system or device can be repaired or replaced.

Constant Mach Climb: IAS/CAS/TAS decreases
Constant Mach Descent: IAS/CAS/TAS increases

Constant IAS climb: Mach/TAS increases
Constant IAS descent: Mach/TAS decreases

Mach number is your speed relative to that of the speed of sound. The speed of sound varies directly with the prevailing temperature. Thus, when you descend with a constant airspeed the mach number decreases.

From the Ground Up

The greatest vortex strength occurs under conditions of clean configuration, a high aircraft weight and a slow airspeed.

The approximate bank angle required to accomplish a coordinated rate one turn (3°/second) can be calculated by dividing the TAS (in knots) by 10 and then adding 7.

From the Ground Up

The load factor is the ratio of the actual load acting on the wings to the gross weight of the airplane.

When an airplane is in level flight, the lift of the wings is exactly equal to the weight of the airplane. The load factor = 1.

In a level turn at a bank angle of 30 degrees, the load factor = 1.15.

In a 60 degree bank, the load factor = 2.

A load factor of 3 is often expressed as 2G. In this case, the letter G refers to gravity. Hence, 2G means a load on the wings equal to 2 times the weight of the airplane due to gravity alone.

Range is the maximum distance an airplane can fly with a given quantity of fuel.

Endurance is the maximum time an airplane can fly with a given quantity of fuel.

An explosive depressurisation is one which occurs in less than half a second. This type of decompression usually only occurs in small aircraft flying at very high altitudes. Decompression which occurs this rapidly, at a rate which is greater than the rate by which the lungs can decompress, is likely to cause lung damage.

The cabin air may fill with dust and debris, and fog caused by an associated drop in temperature and change in relative humidity. Crew may be momentarily dazed or shocked, especially if the event was unexpected, and may therefore be slow to fit oxygen masks.

Reference: AIM AIR 2.12.3.4

As the rate at which ice accumulates on an airfoil is related to the shape of the airfoil, with thinner airfoils having a higher collection efficiency than thicker ones, ice may accumulate on the horizontal stabilizer at a higher rate than on the wings. A tail plane stall occurs when its critical angle of attack is exceeded. Because the horizontal stabilizer produces a downward force to counter the nose-down tendency caused by the centre of lift on the wing, stall of the tail plane will lead to a rapid pitch down. Application of flaps, which may reduce or increase downwash on the tail plane depending on the configuration of the empennage (i.e. low set horizontal stabilizer, mid-set, or T-tail), can aggravate or initiate the stall. Therefore, pilots should be very cautious in lowering flaps if tail plane icing is suspected. Abrupt nose-down pitching movements should also be avoided, since these increase the tail plane angle of attack and may cause a contaminated tail plane to stall.

A tail plane stall can occur at relatively high speeds, well above the normal 1G stallspeed. The pitch down may occur without warning and be uncontrollable. It is more likely to occur when the flaps are selected to the landing position, after a nose-down pitching manoeuvre, during airspeed changes following flap extension, or during flight through wind gusts.

Symptoms of incipient tail plane stall may include:

(a) abnormal elevator control forces, pulsing, oscillation, or vibration;

(b) an abnormal nose-down trim change (may not be detected if autopilot engaged);

(c) any other abnormal or unusual pitch anomalies (possibly leading to pilot induced oscillations);

(d) reduction or loss of elevator effectiveness (may not be detected if the autopilot is engaged);

(e) sudden change in elevator force (control would move down if not restrained); and/or

(f) a sudden, uncommanded nose-down pitch.

It's important to remember that the trim tab moves opposite to the flight control. If you see the elevator trim tab pointing down, it means it is forcing the elevator up, which commands a nose up pitch attitude for a climb.

If you see the right aileron trim tab pointing down, it means it is forcing the right aileron up, and also moving the left aileron to move down, causing a bank to the right for a right turn.

How Aileron and Elevator Trim Tabs Work:

Trim tabs are small adjustable surfaces attached to the trailing edge of the primary control surfaces, such as the ailerons and the elevators, of an aircraft. They are used to reduce the pilot's workload by maintaining the aircraft's desired attitude without continuous control input. Here's a detailed explanation of how aileron and elevator trim tabs work:

1. Aileron Trim Tabs:

The aileron trim tab is located on the trailing edge of the aileron, typically on the wing. It adjusts the aileron’s effectiveness by creating a small aerodynamic force that helps maintain the desired roll attitude of the aircraft without constant input from the pilot.

How They Work:

Purpose: The main purpose of the aileron trim tab is to eliminate the need for continuous pressure on the control stick or yoke to maintain level flight or a desired bank angle.

Movement: When the pilot adjusts the aileron trim, the trim tab moves in relation to the aileron. If the aircraft is rolling to one side (i.e., the aircraft is uncoordinated or rolling due to aerodynamic forces), the pilot can adjust the aileron trim tab to counteract this roll tendency.

Effect:

If the aircraft is rolling to the right and the pilot wants to stop the roll, the right aileron trim tab can be adjusted down (or left up) to create an aerodynamic force that resists the roll.

Conversely, if the aircraft is rolling to the left, the left aileron trim tab can be adjusted down to help resist the roll, keeping the aircraft level.

Adjustment Mechanism:

Typically, the aileron trim is adjusted by a wheel or a lever in the cockpit, which mechanically or electrically moves the trim tab to create the desired amount of resistance on the aileron.

By adjusting the trim, the pilot can fine-tune the control surface so that less effort is needed to maintain straight and level flight or a constant bank angle.

2. Elevator Trim Tabs:

The elevator trim tab is located on the trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer or elevator, and its function is to adjust the aircraft's pitch attitude.

How They Work:

Purpose: The elevator trim tab is used to relieve the pilot from constantly holding pressure on the control yoke or stick to maintain a certain pitch attitude (e.g., level flight or climb).

Movement: When the elevator trim tab is adjusted, it changes the airflow around the horizontal stabilizer, creating a force that either increases or decreases the aircraft's pitch attitude.

Effect:

If the aircraft's nose is pitched up, the pilot can adjust the trim tab downward to relieve the pressure on the yoke/stick, helping the aircraft to return to a more neutral attitude.

If the aircraft's nose is pitched down, the pilot can adjust the trim tab upward to keep the nose up and reduce the forward pressure needed on the controls.

Adjustment Mechanism:

The elevator trim can be adjusted via a wheel, knob, or lever, depending on the aircraft's design. The trim tab moves relative to the elevator, creating the necessary aerodynamic force to achieve the desired pitch attitude.

In some aircraft, especially older models, the elevator trim tab is manually adjusted, while modern aircraft often use electric or hydraulic systems to adjust the trim tab automatically.

3. Types of Trim Tabs:

Fixed Trim Tab: A fixed trim tab is simply a small piece of control surface that is set at a fixed angle to the primary control surface. It is used to create a small force that requires no further adjustment unless manually changed.

Adjustable Trim Tab: An adjustable trim tab allows the pilot to change the angle of the tab to fine-tune the aerodynamic force required to hold the desired attitude or trajectory of the aircraft.

4. Key Benefits of Trim Tabs:

Reduced Pilot Workload: Trim tabs allow pilots to relieve pressure on the control yoke or stick, especially during long flights, reducing fatigue and making it easier to maintain a steady course.

Improved Stability: Trim tabs help to counteract aerodynamic forces that cause the aircraft to deviate from its desired attitude. This can improve the overall stability of the aircraft.

Fuel Efficiency: By reducing the amount of continuous control input required, trim tabs help the aircraft maintain a steady flight attitude with minimal power, which can contribute to fuel efficiency over time.

5. Aileron vs. Elevator Trim Tabs:

Aileron Trim Tab: Primarily used to control roll, ensuring that the aircraft remains level or maintains a desired bank angle without the need for constant input from the pilot. It is particularly useful when there is asymmetric loading, such as a heavy load on one wing or a crosswind.

Elevator Trim Tab: Primarily used to control pitch, allowing the pilot to maintain the desired pitch attitude (e.g., level flight, climb, or descent) without needing to apply continuous pressure on the control stick or yoke.

Advisory Circular (AC) No. 700-016

Low Energy Landing Regime: A low-energy landing regime is defined as a condition where a rejected or balked landing is commenced after a commitment to a landing has been made.

In a low-energy landing regime, the aeroplane is in a descent at a height of 50 feet or less above the runway, in the landing configuration with thrust stabilized in the idle range, and airspeed decreasing.

An attempt to conduct a rejected or balked landing from a low-energy landing regime may result in ground contact.

AIM 3.3 REPORTING AN AVIATION OCCURRENCE

The owner, operator, pilot-in-command, any crew member of the aircraft and any person providing air traffic services that have direct knowledge of an occurrence must report the following aviation occurrences to the Board if they result directly from the operation of an aircraft.

2.10 ALTIMETER SETTING REGION

The altimeter setting region is an airspace of defined dimensions below 18 000 feet ASL (see CAR 602.35 and Figure 2.9) within which the following altimeter setting procedures apply:

Departure – Prior to takeoff, the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if that altimeter setting is not available, to the elevation of the aerodrome.

En route – During flight the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or, where such stations are separated by more than 150 NM, the nearest station to the route of flight.

Arrival – When approaching the aerodrome of intended landing the altimeter shall be set to the current aerodrome altimeter setting, if available.

2.11 STANDARD PRESSURE REGION

The standard pressure region includes all airspace over Canada at or above 18 000 feet ASL (the high-level airspace), and all low-level airspace that is outside of the lateral limit of the altimeter setting region. Within the standard pressure region the following flight procedures apply;

Departure – Prior to takeoff the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if the altimeter setting is not available, to the elevation of that aerodrome. Immediately prior to reaching the flight level at which flight is to be conducted, the altimeter shall be set to standard pressure (29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs). If the planned cruising flight level is above FL 180, resetting the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs at 18 000 ft ASL is acceptable and meets the requirement of CAR 602.36.

Arrival – Prior to commencing descent with the intention to land, the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing, if available. However, if a holding procedure is conducted, the altimeter shall not be set to the current aerodrome altimeter setting until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted. Pilots of aircraft descending from cruising flight levels above FL 180 may reset altimeters to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing when approaching FL 180 provided no holding or cruise level flight below FL 180 is to be made or anticipated.

AIM 6.1 ATC Clearance

AIM Reference 4.10.7

From the Ground Up

Pitot Tube Blockage:

A pitot tube blockage can be caused by dirt, moisture, ice or even bugs. And, of course, aborted takeoffs after a failure to note “airspeed alive” on the takeoff roll, only to later find the pitot-tube cover still on, almost mockingly. Assuming a proper preflight inspection, ensuring the pitot tube is free and clear, obstructions can still unfortunately occur during flight. There are a few possible scenarios.

Effects on the Airspeed Indicator:

Blocked pitot tube with unblocked drain hole: This would result in the airspeed indicator reading zero. Because the pitot tube would not be able to sense any airflow, and the drain hole would let any residual air out, there would be no pressure differential for the airspeed indicator to measure.

Cause of Zero Reading: A blocked pitot tube with an open drain port can cause the airspeed indicator to register zero or the last known speed. However, if both the pitot tube and the drain port are blocked, the instrument could display incorrect or erratic airspeed readings.

Blocked pitot tube with blocked drain hole: With trapped dynamic pressure, the airspeed will indicate whatever speed was showing when the blockages occurred. If the aircraft’s static port remains unblocked, pressure will increase as the aircraft descends and decrease as the aircraft climbs.

If static pressure decreases during a climb, the trapped ambient pressure with allow the diaphragm to expand, showing an increase in airspeed. Conversely, descending into denser air will force the diaphragm to close, showing a decrease in airspeed. In short, the airspeed will act in a manner similar to an altimeter.

Effects on the Altimeter and Vertical Speed Indicator:

Minimal or No Effect: The blockage of the pitot tube does not directly affect the altimeter or the vertical speed indicator (VSI), as these instruments primarily rely on static pressure, not dynamic pressure. Therefore, the aircraft's altitude and rate of climb/descent should still be accurately displayed.

Static Port Blockage:

The static port measures the surrounding atmospheric pressure and is used by several instruments, including the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. A blockage of the static port can cause significant issues with all of these instruments.

Vertical Speed Indicator: With no changes to static air, there can be no differential pressure for the VSI to work with. With no differential pressure, the VSI will be stuck at zero, and you’ll marvel at how well you’re maintaining altitude.

Altimeter: The altimeter will freeze at whatever altitude was indicated when the static port was blocked.

Effects on the Airspeed Indicator:

Airspeed Indicator: If the static port is blocked but the pitot tube remains clear, the ASI will function but not with accuracy. If speed remains constant, and the aircraft climbs or descends, the static pressure will result in changes to your airspeed indication. It’s the same principle as a blocked pitot tube but reversed.

A climb will result in a decrease in atmospheric pressure entering the pitot tube, which will result in the ASI indicating decreasing airspeed, causing the ASI to act as a “reverse altimeter.” As long as the pitot tube is not blocked, changes in airspeed will reflect on the ASI, but not accurately.

Blocked Static Port: The airspeed indicator relies on both static and dynamic pressure. If the static port is blocked, the airspeed indicator may behave erratically because it cannot reference the correct surrounding atmospheric pressure. The result can be a false or incorrect reading of airspeed. For instance, the airspeed could appear to increase or decrease inappropriately, even when the aircraft’s speed has remained constant.

Effects on the Altimeter:

Blocked Static Port: The altimeter measures the pressure difference between the static port and a sealed reference inside the instrument. A blockage in the static port causes the altimeter to either freeze at the last known altitude or display incorrect values, depending on the altitude changes that occur. In some cases, the altimeter may continue to show an incorrect altitude that does not correspond to the aircraft’s actual height.

Effects on the Vertical Speed Indicator:

Blocked Static Port: The vertical speed indicator measures changes in static pressure over time to determine the rate of climb or descent. If the static port is blocked, the VSI will either freeze or give erroneous readings, as it cannot detect changes in atmospheric pressure correctly.

Summary of Effects:

Pitot Tube Blockage:

Affects the airspeed indicator by causing it to freeze or show a zero reading.

No significant effect on the altimeter or vertical speed indicator.

Static Port Blockage:

Affects the airspeed indicator by causing incorrect or fluctuating readings.

Affects the altimeter by freezing or showing incorrect altitude.

Affects the vertical speed indicator by freezing or displaying inaccurate rate-of-climb data.

In the event of these blockages, pilots must rely on alternative instruments and procedures to manage flight, as the accuracy of key flight data may be compromised.