INRAT Exam 1

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This is a timed 3 hour practice exam with a minimum passing grade of 85%.

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INRAT Exam

INRAT Practice Exam 1

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Category: INRAT - Instrumentation, Navigation and Radio Aids

1. When flying a GPS overlay approach, the underlying NAVAID(s):

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2. What is the maximum holding speed at 5,000 feet ASL?

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3. Which of the following is not true when flying, "1000 ft on top" flights?

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4. With regards to SID's, ATC may:

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5. When flying IFR, what determines whether you can land?

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6. Decreased performance shear (sudden airspeed drop) while on final approach requires the pilot to:

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7. RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicators) use which of the following signals?

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8. When is the DME slant range error the greatest?

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9. To ensure an NDB's accuracy, it must be at least +/- ____ degrees for an approach and +/-____ degrees en-route.

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10. The aircraft is currently flying at 10,000 ft ASL. The ground elevation is 2,000 ft. What is the maximum distance you can expect to receive the VOR signal?

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Category: INRAT - Human Factors and Airmanship

11. The Time of Useful Consciousness at FL250 is approximately?

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12. In a non-radar environment, when ATC has reason to believe that the following aircraft will require more runway length for takeoff than the preceding aircraft. They will:

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13. In flight, when you encounter Ice Pellets, it could indicate that?

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14. Which statement is true regarding PSR (primary surveillance radar) and SSR (secondary surveillance radar)?

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15. You are flying at a TAS of 140 knots. What bank angle would produce a rate one turn?

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16. Strong radar contours of thunderstorms should be avoided by at least?

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17. What is the floor of the Arctic Control Area?

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18. Where a Victor airway is established based on a VOR/VORTAC and NDB, the boundaries of that airway will be:

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19. For a Category C aircraft. The SPEC VIS and speed range is:

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20. With respect to the IFR recency requirement. Following the first day of the 13th month following the completion of an IFR flight test or IPC, the pilot must:

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21. A VASIS provides visual indications of the desired approach slope to a runway. At a certified airport, when the aircraft is on the correct slope, safe obstruction clearance is provided between _______ either side of the extended runway centreline out to ____NM from the runway threshold.

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22. What is the splay of a VHF airway between a VOR and NDB?

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23. What is the lowest useable flight level ATC can assign when the altimeter setting is 27.92 inches?

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24. A current altimeter setting is considered current up to:

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25. The reported RVR is 1800 due to localized phenomenon at an aerodrome. But, the reported ground visibility is 1/2 SM. Can the PIC legally depart IFR?

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26. The amount of water a parcel of air can hold at a given pressure is determined by?

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27. What is the characteristics of Rime Ice?

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Category: INRAT - Instrumentation, Navigation and Radio Aids

28. Which of the following is true regarding T-routes?

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29. When transitioning from the altimeter setting region to the standard pressure setting region. The pilot must:

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Category: INRAT - Instrumentation, Navigation and Radio Aids

30. With regards to a V2 VASIS, what is the expected Eye to Wheel Height?

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31. The pilot of an aircraft is on approach to a runway that is more upslope than he/she is familiar with. This may create the illusion of the pilot being _____ and may tend to  ______ the approach.

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32. The pilot of an aircraft is on approach to a runway that is wider than he/she is familiar with. This may create the illusion of the pilot being _____ and compensate by approaching _____.

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33. Lightning strikes have the greatest probability of occurring between what temperature range?

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34. In the presence of a large thunderstorm; where are roll clouds typically found?

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35. What is a condition for Steam Fog to form?

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36. During a flight through a winter warm front, you have been encountering freezing rain. Later, you notice that ice crystals are beginning to appear in the sky. This means that the icing is:

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37. The pressure chart equivalent to 34,000 ft is:

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38. Clear icing is likely to form in what type of clouds?

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39. An aircraft is flying from Vancouver to Calgary with a strong tailwind. Where is the low pressure system?

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40. CYYZ METAR 201600Z 05020KT 1/4 SM R24L/1500FT/D SN DRSN VV007 01/M02 A2978.
This meaning that the ceiling is?

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41. Which radial is the aircraft on?

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42. You are flying a heading of 220 degrees magnetic. The fixed card ADF, relative bearing is 250 degrees to the QT (Thunder Bay) NDB.

ATC clears you to intercept the 080 magnetic track inbound to the station. Using a 45 degree intercept angle, the initial intercept heading would be:

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43. From the previous question. What Relative Bearing would a Fixed card ADF read?

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44. You are presently flying an aircraft at 10,000 ft. ATC just cleared you to descend down to 5,000 ft. You must:

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Category: CPL - Navigation and Radio Aids | Section 2

45. On a a CPL cross-country flight, you wish to determine your aircraft's position using an NDB.

The fixed card ADF needle points to 220° and after 3 minutes changes to 200°.

The entire time you maintained 120 knots. What is your approximate distance to the station?

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46. You are flying a heading of 180 degrees magnetic. The fixed card ADF, relative bearing is 220 degrees to the OW (Ottawa) NDB.

ATC clears you to intercept the 240 magnetic track outbound from the station. Using a 45 degree intercept angle, the intercept heading and initial turn would be:

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47. From the previous question. What Relative Bearing would a Fixed card ADF read?

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48. You are taxing for takeoff for runway 34 in CYXL. Before you leave the apron, you pick up the new weather report.

METAR CYXL 122000Z CCA 16004KT 340V070 1/8SM -SN R16/2600FT/N VV002 M06/M09 A2985

Are you able to takeoff legally?

 

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49. Your aircraft is parked on the apron at CYXL. There is no ATC Tower to contact for taxi clearance at this airport. Can you legally taxi for departure based on the following weather report?

METAR CYXL 122200Z CCA 16004KT 340V070 1/2SM -SN R17/2000FT/D VV002 M06/M09 A2985

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50. You are about to depart RWY 25 in CYQT (Thunder Bay) on the ‘THUNDERY BAY NINE DEP’ SID. ATC instructs you, “fly heading 300 on departure”. Which of the following is true?

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