CPL Practice Exam 5

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CPL Exam

CPL Practice Exam 5

Air Law Section

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

1. When operating in the standard pressure region, prior to reaching the cruising flight level, the pilot should set the altimeter to standard pressure. When  should you re-set the altimeter to 29.92 if the cruising flight level is above FL180?

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

2. You are departing from an aerodrome and find out that the aerodrome in question does not have any lighting. Are you legally allowed to take-off?

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

3. Your magnetic heading is 175 degrees. What is the lowest cruising altitude you are allowed to fly?

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4. Cruising Altitude are applicable above which altitude?

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5. When is it not required to file a flight plan or flight itinerary?

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6. No person shall operate an aircraft over land unless there is carried on board survival equipment, sufficient for the survival on the ground of each person on board, given the geographical area, the season of the year and anticipated seasonal climatic variations, that provides the means for:

(a) starting a fire;

(b) providing shelter;

(c) providing or purifying water;

(d) visually signalling distress;

(e) access to communications such as a VHF radio

(f) alternate means of communications such as a cellphone.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

7. No person shall conduct a take-off in a power-driven aircraft, other than an ultra-light aeroplane, unless the following operational and emergency equipment is carried on board:

(a) a checklist or placards;

(b) Current aeronautical charts and publications covering the route of the proposed flight and any probable diversionary route.

(c) a Cx-3 or E6B

(d) current data covering the route of the proposed flight and any probable diversionary route, if the aircraft is operated in VFR OTT flight other than VFR OTT flight referred to in paragraph (c) and database-dependent navigation equipment is used;

(e) a hand-held fire extinguisher in the cockpit

(f) a timepiece that is readily available to each flight crew member and that displays the time in hours, minutes and seconds;

(g) a flashlight that is readily available to each crew member, if the aircraft is operated at night; and

(h) a first aid kit.

(i) A checklist or placards shall enable the aircraft to be operated in normal, abnormal and emergency conditions

(j) A checklist or placards shall enable the aircraft to be operated in abnormal and emergency conditions.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

8. Below 3,000 ft AGL within 10 NM of a control zone. The maximum speed allowed is:

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

9. With some exceptions, no person shall operate an aircraft over a built-up area or over an open-air assembly of persons unless the aircraft is operated at an altitude from which, in the event of an emergency necessitating an immediate landing, it would be possible to land the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface, and, in any case, at an altitude that is not lower than, _____ feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of ______ feet from the aeroplane. In circumstances other than those referred to in paragraph (a) at a distance less than _____feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

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10. No person operating an aircraft shall conduct aerobatic manoeuvres over a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons below _____________.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

11. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may deviate from an air traffic control clearance or instruction to the extent necessary to carry out a collision avoidance manoeuvre. What must you do as the PIC?

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

12. The cruising altitude/flight level in level cruising flight is determined using the aircraft’s _______________ in Northern Domestic Airspace.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

13. No person shall conduct a take-off, approach or landing in an aircraft within a built-up area of a city or town, unless that take-off, approach or landing is conducted at an airport, heliport or a military aerodrome, except:

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

14. No person shall walk, stand, drive a vehicle, park a vehicle or aircraft or cause an obstruction on the movement area of an aerodrome, except with permission given by:

(ii) where applicable, by the appropriate air traffic control unit or flight service station;

(b) tow an aircraft on an active movement area at night unless the aircraft displays operating wingtip, tail and anti-collision lights or is illuminated by lights mounted on the towing vehicle and directed at the aircraft;

(c) park or otherwise leave an aircraft on an active manoeuvring area at night unless the aircraft displays operating wingtip, tail and anti-collision lights or is illuminated by lanterns suspended from the wingtips, tail and nose of the aircraft;

(d) operate any vessel, or cause any obstruction, on the surface of any part of a water area of an aerodrome that is to be kept clear of obstructions in the interest of aviation safety, when ordered, by signal or otherwise, to leave or not to approach that area by the appropriate air traffic control unit or flight service station or by the operator of the aerodrome;

(e) knowingly remove, deface, extinguish or interfere with a marker, marking, light or signal that is used at an aerodrome for the purpose of air navigation, except in accordance with permission given

(i) by the operator of the aerodrome, and

(ii) where applicable, by the appropriate air traffic control unit or flight service station;

(f) at a place other than an aerodrome, knowingly display a marker, marking, light or signal that is likely to cause a person to believe that the place is an aerodrome;

(g) knowingly display at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome a marker, marking, sign, light or signal that is likely to be hazardous to aviation safety by causing glare or by causing confusion with or preventing clear visual perception of a marker, marking, sign, light or signal that is required under this Subpart;

(h) allow a bird or other animal that is owned by the person or that is in the person’s custody or control to be unrestrained within the boundaries of an aerodrome except for the purpose of controlling other birds or animals at the aerodrome as permitted by the operator; or

(i) discharge a firearm within or into an aerodrome without the permission of the operator of the aerodrome.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

15. What are the vertical dimensions of Class B airspace?

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16. What is the rule regarding smoking on board an aircraft?

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

17. Where conditions are such that frost, ice or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, no person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the aircraft has been inspected immediately prior to take-off to determine whether any frost, ice or snow is adhering to any of its critical surfaces. Who may conduct this inspection?

(a) the pilot-in-command;

(b) a flight crew member of the aircraft who is designated by the pilot-in-command; or

(c) a person who is designated by the operator of the aircraft, and has successfully completed training relating to ground and airborne icing operations.

(d) an off duty flight attendant

(e) an off duty Captain

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

18. When flying over an airport at night to inspect the aerodrome the runway markers are visible. The edge markers are set at 200 feet intervals. You need 2500ft to land and stop. How many markers must be seen to estimate the distance you require?

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

19. With regards to aerodrome lighting, each side of the runway along its length with a line of fixed white lights that is visible in all directions from an aircraft in flight at a distance of not less than _______.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

20. The Minister may issue a NOTAM that relates to restrictions on the operation of aircraft in the case of a forest fire and that describes. No person shall operate an aircraft in the airspace below ________ and within _______ of the limits or area described in the NOTAM.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

21. No person shall operate a multi-engined aircraft with passengers on board in IMC and at night unless the aircraft is equipped with:

(a) a power failure warning device or vacuum indicator to show the power available for gyroscopic instruments from each power source;

(b) an alternate source of static pressure for the altimeter and the airspeed and vertical speed indicators;

(c) two generators, each of which is driven by a separate engine or by a rotor drive train;

(d) two sources of battery power

(e) at least one landing light;

(f) if the aircraft is operated in icing conditions, a means of illumination or other means to detect the formation of ice.

(g) a means to detect thunderstorms

(h) a standby attitude indicator

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22. Dangerous goods training be completed every _______.

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23. When must the crew members be seated at their stations with their safety belts, including any shoulder harness, fastened?

(a) during take-off and landing;

(b) at any time that the pilot-in-command directs;

(c) in the case of crew members who are flight attendants, at any time that the in-charge flight attendant so directs.

(d) A crew member is not required to remain seated during movement of the aircraft on the surface or during flight, if the crew member is performing duties relating to the safety of the aircraft or of the passengers on board;

(e) A crew member is not required to remain seated if the crew member is occupying a crew rest facility during cruise flight and the restraint system for that facility is properly adjusted and securely fastened.

(f) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that at least one pilot is seated at the flight controls with safety belt, including any shoulder harness, fastened during flight time.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

24. No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a child restraint system on board the aircraft unless:

(a) the person using the child restraint system is accompanied by a parent or guardian who will attend to the safety of the person during the flight;

(b) the weight of the person using the child restraint system is within 30 lbs;

(c) the child restraint system is properly secured and is not located in an emergency exit row and does not block access to an aisle; and

(d) Every passenger who is responsible for a person who is using a child restraint system on board an aircraft shall be seated in a seat adjacent to the seat to which the child restraint system is secured;

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

25. No person shall operate a pressurized aircraft unless it is equipped with sufficient oxygen dispensing units and oxygen supply to provide, in the event of cabin pressurization failure at the most critical point during the flight, sufficient oxygen for: (select the best 2 answers)

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

26. No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a flight control lock in respect of the aircraft unless:

(a) the flight control lock is incapable of becoming engaged when the aircraft is being operated; and

(b) a red flag is hanging from the pitot tube.

(c) an unmistakable warning is provided to the person operating the aircraft whenever the flight control lock is engaged.

(d) an audible flight deck warning to alert the pilot is serviceable.

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27. When is a cockpit voice recorder required?

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28. No private operator shall authorize a person to perform maintenance or elementary work on any of its aircraft unless __________________________.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

29. High altitude emergency indoctrination training expires ____________.

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30. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a person, other than the flight crew on a night flight must hold?

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31. What is High altitude training required?

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32. Where the pilot-in-command or the in-charge flight attendant directs that safety belts be fastened, every passenger who is not an infant shall:

(a) ensure that the passenger’s safety belt, including any shoulder harness, or restraint system is properly adjusted and securely fastened;

(b) if responsible for an infant for which no child restraint system is provided, hold the infant securely in the passenger’s arms; and

(c) if responsible for a person who is using a child restraint system, ensure that the person is properly secured.

(d) An adult passenger shall be responsible for more than two infants.

(e) No passenger shall be responsible for more than one infant.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

33. The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft shall revise the estimated time and point of ADIZ entry only if within _____ of the estimated time and _______ of estimated ADIZ entry.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

34. Where there is a two-way radio communication failure between the controlling air traffic control unit and a VFR aircraft while operating in Class B, Class C or Class D airspace, the pilot-in-command shall ____________________________.

(a) leave the airspace

(b) continue in the airspace as filed

(c) set the transponder to code 7700

(d) set the transponder to code 7600; and

(e) inform an air traffic control unit as soon as possible.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

35. Which of the following statements apply to an aircraft operating VFR or IFR aircraft within an MF area?

(a) The pilot-in-command of a VFR or IFR aircraft operating within an MF area shall maintain a listening watch on the mandatory frequency specified for use in the MF area.

(b) The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft that is not equipped with the radio communication equipment may operate the aircraft to or from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area if a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome;

(c) The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft that is not equipped with the radio communication equipment may operate the aircraft to or from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area if a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome;

(d) The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft that is not equipped with the radio communication equipment may operate the aircraft to or from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area if a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome if prior notice of the pilot-in-command’s intention to operate the aircraft at the aerodrome has been given to the ground station;

(e) The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft that is not equipped with the radio communication equipment may operate the aircraft to or from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area if a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome if when conducting a take-off, the pilot-in-command ascertains by visual observation that there is no likelihood of collision with another aircraft or a vehicle during take-off; and

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

36. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that each crew member, before acting as a crew member on board the aircraft, has been instructed with respect to:

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

37. Where it is necessary for the purposes of the operation in which the aircraft is engaged, a pilot-in-command may operate an aircraft at an altitude of less than 2,000 feet over an aerodrome, where it is being operated

(a) in the service of a police authority;

(b) for the purpose of saving human life;

(c) for fire-fighting or air ambulance operations;

(d) for the purpose of the administration of the Fisheries Act or the Coastal Fisheries Protection Act;

(e) for the purpose of the administration of the national or provincial parks;

(f) for the purpose of flight inspection;

(g) for the purpose of aerial application or aerial inspection;

(h) for the purpose of highway or city traffic patrol;

(i) for the purpose of aerial photography conducted by the holder of an air operator certificate;

(j) for the purpose of sightseeing.

(k) for the purpose of flight training conducted by the holder of a flight training unit operator certificate.

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38. Before taking off VFR or IFR from, landing at or otherwise operating an aircraft at an aerodrome, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall be satisfied that:

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39. No person shall operate over water a multi-engined aeroplane that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than _______, or the distance that can be covered in ______ of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site unless life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accommodate all of the persons on board.

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40. No person shall operate an aeroplane at more than ___________ from shore unless a life preserver is carried for each person on board.

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41. A person may operate over water a transport category aircraft that is an aeroplane, at up to ________, or the distance that can be covered in _______ of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site without the life rafts.

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42. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft for which an IFR flight plan or an IFR flight itinerary intends to make change in the plan. What must be communicated to ATC?

(a) the cruising altitude or cruising flight level;

(b) the equipment on board such as GPS, VOR, ILS

(c) the route of flight;

(d) the destination aerodrome;

(e) the fuel status when below 50% full.

(f) in the case of a flight plan, the true airspeed at the cruising altitude or cruising flight level, where the change intended is five per cent or more of the true airspeed specified in the IFR flight plan; or

(g) the Mach number, where the change intended is .01 or more

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43. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft who terminates a flight in respect of which a flight plan has been filed  shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station as soon as practicable after landing but not later than:

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44. No person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than ______ if the aircraft is below 10,000 feet ASL; or operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than_______ if the aircraft is below 3,000 feet AGL within 10 nautical miles of a controlled aerodrome unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

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45. The cruising altitude/flight level in level cruising flight is determined using the aircraft’s _______________ in Northern Domestic Airspace and the _______ in the Southern Domestic Airspace

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46. When operating in the standard pressure region, prior to reaching the cruising flight level, the pilot should set the altimeter to standard pressure. When  should you re-set the altimeter to 29.92 if the cruising flight level is above FL180?

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

47. When transitioning from the altimeter setting region to the standard pressure setting region. The pilot must:

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48. No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless _______________________.

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49. An air operator shall not assign a flight crew member for flight time, and a flight crew member shall not accept such an assignment, if the member’s total flight time will, as a result, exceed

(a) 40 hours in any 7 consecutive days for airline operations.

(b) 40 hours in any 6 consecutive days for air taxi operations.

(c) 120 hours in any 30 consecutive days or, in the case of a flight crew member on call, 100 hours in any 30 consecutive days;

(d) 100 hours in any 30 consecutive days or, in the case of a flight crew member on call, 120 hours in any 30 consecutive days;

(e) 300 hours in any 90 consecutive days;

(f) 1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive days;

(g) 1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive days; or

(h) in the case of a single-pilot operation, 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours.

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50. Every air operator shall, for each of its aircraft that is required to be operated by two or more pilots must:

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51. No person shall act as a flight crew member in an aircraft unless:

(a) within the previous 90 days, has completed at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings

(b) in the case of a PIC of a single-engined aeroplane, non 703, a competency check for that type of aircraft; and

(c) the PIC of an aircraft with a person other than a flight crew member on board in night VFR flight holds an instrument rating for that class of aircraft; and

(d) the PIC with passengers on board has acquired, on that type and basic model of aircraft and in the pilot-in-command position: in the case of a single-engined aeroplane 5 hours; or in the case of a multi-engined aeroplane, 15 hours.

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52. The validity period of a pilot proficiency check, a competency check and the annual training expires on ______________________________  in which the pilot proficiency check, competency check or training was completed.

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53. An aircraft shall be deemed to be operated over a built-up area or over an open-air assembly of persons if the built-up area or open-air assembly of persons is within a horizontal distance of ______ from an aircraft. 

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54. The holder of a commercial pilot licence while engaged in providing a commercial air service by means of an aeroplane of a class and type in respect of which the licence is endorsed with ratings, act as:

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55. A high-performance aeroplane, with respect to a rating, means an aeroplane that is specified in the minimum flight crew document as requiring  _____ and that has a maximum speed (Vne) of ____ or greater or a stall speed (Vso) of ____ or greater.

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56. To operate an aeroplane in aerial work involving the carriage on board of persons, other than flight crew members, the operator must have

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57. No pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft shall commence a flight or unless the aircraft carries sufficient fuel to ensure when operated during the day, to fly to the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of ____________, or when operated at night, to fly to the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of _____________.

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58. When an aircraft is operated in the altimeter-setting region, each flight crew member shall while in flight, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or, where the nearest stations along the route of flight are separated by more than ______, to the altimeter setting of a station near the route of flight; and immediately ___________ for the purpose of landing at an aerodrome, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the aerodrome.

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59. No person shall jettison fuel from an aircraft in flight unless:

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60. Flight duty period may be extended by ______ of the length of the rest period, to a maximum of ______, if before a flight crew member reports for the first flight or reports as a flight crew member on standby, as the case may be, the private operator provides the flight crew member with notice of the extension of the flight duty period; the private operator provides the flight crew member with a rest period of at least _____________ in suitable accommodation; and the flight crew member’s next minimum rest period is increased by an amount of time at least equal to the length of the extension of the flight duty period.

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61. Flight duty period may be extended by up to _____ if the pilot-in-command, after consultation with the other flight crew members, considers it safe to do so.

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62. No air operator shall operate a single-engined aircraft with passengers on board in IFR flight or in night VFR flight, unless: 

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63. No private operator shall assign flight duty period to a flight crew member, and no flight crew member shall accept such an assignment, if the flight crew member’s flight duty period would, as a result, exceed ________________________________.

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64. No person shall operate a VFR aircraft in Class B airspace unless ______________________.

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65. No person shall operate an aircraft unless ____________________________.

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66. No air operator shall operate a single-engined aircraft with more than 9 passengers on board unless _______________.

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67. An aircraft may be operated in VFR OTT flight during the cruise portion of the flight during the day if:

(a) the aircraft is operated at a vertical distance from cloud of at least 1,000 feet;

(b) the aircraft is operated at a vertical distance from cloud of at least 500 feet;

(c) where the aircraft is operated between two cloud layers, the vertical distance between the layers is at least 5,000 feet;

(d) flight visibility at the cruising altitude of the aircraft is at least 5 miles;

(e) flight visibility at the cruising altitude of the aircraft is at least 3 miles

(f) the weather at the aerodrome of destination is forecast to have no broken, overcast or obscured layer lower than 3,000 feet above the planned flight altitude.

(g) where the forecast is an aerodrome forecast (TAF), for the period from 1 hour before to 2 hours after the ETA, using the worst forecast condition together with any of the references TEMPO, BECMG or PROB.

(h) where the forecast is an aerodrome forecast (TAF), for the period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, using the worst forecast condition together with any of the references TEMPO, BECMG or PROB.

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68. With respects to an aircraft who is the operator?

 

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69. The maximum altitude a VFR Eastbound, unpressurized aircraft may fly without supplemental oxygen on board is:

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70. An aircraft operated in VFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft in the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter: (select the best 2 answers)

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71. An aircraft operated beyond 25 nautical miles of the aerodrome of departure must carry on board:

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72. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at a cruising altitude or cruising flight level appropriate to the track and the aircraft is operated in level cruising flight:

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73. very report made shall be ____________________________________________________________________________.

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74.  The PIC of a VFR or IFR aircraft operating within an MF area shall maintain a listening watch on the mandatory frequency specified for use in the MF area. If not equipped with the proper radio communication equipment, the PIC may operate the aircraft to or from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area if:

(a) a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome;

(b) prior notice of the pilot-in-command’s intention to operate the aircraft at the aerodrome has been given to the ground station;

(c) when conducting a take-off, the pilot-in-command ascertains by visual observation that there is no likelihood of collision with another aircraft or a vehicle during take-off; and

(d) when approaching for a landing, the aircraft enters the aerodrome traffic circuit from a position that will require it to complete two sides of a rectangular circuit before turning onto the final approach path.

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75. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft flying through an MF area shall report:

a) before entering the MF area and, where circumstances permit, shall do so at least 5 minutes before landing giving the aircraft’s position and altitude and the pilot-in-command’s intentions; and

b) before entering the MF area and, where circumstances permit, shall do so at least 5 minutes before entering the area, giving the aircraft’s position and altitude and the pilot-in-command’s intentions; and

c) on final approach.

d) on the downwind

e) when clear of the MF area.

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76. The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft carrying out continuous circuits at an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area shall report:

(a) when joining the downwind leg of the circuit;

(b) when on final approach, stating the pilot-in-command’s intentions; and

(c) when clear of the surface on which the aircraft has landed.

(d) when clear of the taxiways and aprons.

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77. The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft arriving at an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area shall report:

(a) before entering the MF area and, where circumstances permit, shall do so at least five minutes before entering the area, giving the aircraft’s position, altitude and estimated time of landing and the pilot-in-command’s arrival procedure intentions;

(b) when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit, giving the aircraft’s position in the circuit;

(c) when on the downwind leg, if applicable;

(d) when on final approach; and

(e) when clear of the surface on which the aircraft has landed.

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Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

78. The pilot-in-command of a VFR or IFR aircraft that is departing from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area shall:

(a) before moving onto the take-off surface, report the pilot-in-command’s departure procedure intentions;

(b) before take-off, ascertain by radio communication and by visual observation that there is no likelihood of collision with another aircraft or a vehicle during take-off;

(c) before take-off, ascertain by radio communication that there is no likelihood of collision with another aircraft or a vehicle during take-off;

(d) after take-off, report departing from the aerodrome traffic circuit.

79 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

79. The pilot-in-command of a _________ aircraft that is operated at an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area shall report the pilot-in-command’s intentions ______________________________.

80 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

80. Where a minimum equipment list has been approved in respect of the operator of an aircraft, no person shall conduct a take-off in the aircraft with equipment that is not serviceable or that has been removed unless ____________________________________.

81 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

81. An aircraft may be operated in Special VFR flight within a control zone if:

a) flight visibility is not less than one mile, or one-half mile, where the aircraft is a helicopter;

b) flight visibility is not less than 1/2 miles, or 1 mile, where the aircraft is a helicopter;

c) flight visibility is not less than 2 miles, or 1 mile, where the aircraft is a helicopter;

d) the aircraft is operated clear of cloud and with visual reference to the surface at all times;

e) the aircraft is operated 500 ft vertically from cloud and with visual reference to the surface at all times;

f) authorization to do so has been requested and obtained from the appropriate air traffic control unit.

g) authorization to do so has been requested and obtained from the Minister.

82 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

82. A private operator shall have an operational control system that shall include procedures for ensuring that documentation related to the operational control of a flight shall be retained by the private operator for at least _____ after the day on which the flight is completed.

83 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

83. No person shall operate a subsonic turbo-jet aeroplane that has a maximum certificated take-off weight of more than 34,000 kg (74,956 pounds) on take-off at a noise-restricted runway, unless there is on board _________________________.

84 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

84. No person shall operate an aircraft at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome except in accordance with the applicable noise abatement procedures and noise control requirements specified by the Minister in the ______________________________.

85 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

85. No air operator shall permit a person to commence a flight unless an operational flight plan has been prepared and the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure ________________________________.

86 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

86. A person shall not act as a flight crew member or carry out that duty, if the operator or the person has reason to believe that the person is not, or is not likely to be, fit for duty. No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft:

(a) within 12 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage;

(b) within 8 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage;

(c) while under the influence of alcohol;

(d) if consuming more than 3 drinks.

87 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

87. The PIC of a VFR aircraft that is not equipped with radio communication equipment capable of 2-way communication with the appropriate air traffic control unit may, ___________________________________________________.

88 / 92

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

88. Class C airspace becomes ______ airspace when the appropriate air traffic control unit is not in operation.

    89 / 92

    Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

    89. No person shall operate an aircraft in Class F Special Use Restricted airspace unless authorized to do so. A person specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook may authorize the operation of an aircraft __________________________________________________________________.

    90 / 92

    Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

    90. No person shall operate an aircraft in VFR flight within uncontrolled airspace unless the aircraft is operated with visual reference to the surface and  operated at or above __________. As well, during the day, flight visibility is not less than ____, during the night, flight visibility is not less than ____, and in either case, the distance of the aircraft from cloud is not less than _____ vertically and _______ horizontally.

    91 / 92

    Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

    91. No person shall operate an aircraft in VFR flight within controlled airspace unless the aircraft is operated with visual reference to the surface. As well, the flight visibility is not less than _____ and; the distance of the aircraft from cloud is not less than ______ vertically and ____ horizontally.

    92 / 92

    Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

    92. No person shall conduct a take-off in a power-driven aircraft, other than an ultra-light aeroplane, unless the following equipment is carried on board:

    (a) a carbon monoxide detector;

    (b) all of the necessary current aeronautical charts/publications covering the route of the proposed flight and any probable diversionary route, if the aircraft is operated in VFR OTT, night VFR flight or IFR flight;

    (c) a hand-held fire extinguisher in the cockpit;

    (d) crew meals

    (e) a timepiece that is readily available to each flight crew member;

    (f) a flashlight that is readily available to each crew member, if the aircraft is operated at night;

    (g) a first aid kit;

    (h) a GNSS;

    (i) A checklist or placards that enable the aircraft to be operated in normal, abnormal and emergency conditions.

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