CPL Practice Exam 1

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This is a timed 3 hour practice exam with a minimum passing grade of 85%.

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CPL Exam

CPL Practice Exam 1

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1 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

1. An airplane flying at 10,000 feet ASL in the Altimeter Setting Region should have its altimeter set to :

2 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

2. A pilot flying in the Northern Domestic Airspace, before reaching the flight level at which the flight is to be conducted, should set the altimeter to ____________________ and the direction for navigation purposes is based on __________.

3 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

3. If the pitot pressure source becomes clogged by dirt, water or ice, inaccurate readings will be caused in the:

4 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

4. When a static line gets disconnected in a pressurized aeroplane, what happens to the altimeter and the airspeed indicator?

5 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

5. When setting cruise power, above 4,000 feet, setting the mixture control to “lean best power” is done:

 

6 / 100

Category: CPL – Navigation and Radio Aids | Section 2

6. When is the DME slant range error the greatest?

7 / 100

Category: CPL – Navigation and Radio Aids | Section 2

7. Like all other navigation aid limitations, DME error is certified to be within__?

8 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

8. You are a pilot at the flight controls of an aircraft that is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, at what altitude, at or above, should you equip the mask?

9 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

9. In a commercial air service, an aircraft operating in IMC conditions must have_____________.

10 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

10. With respect to VFR over-the-top (OTT) flight, which of the following would prevent a pilot from operating VFR OTT?

11 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

11. A pilot operating a single-pilot IFR with a commercial operator is allowed to fly a maximum of___ in any 24 consecutive hours.

12 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

12. The maximum flight time a pilot is allowed to fly in one year with a commercial operator is:

13 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

13. How many pilots are required to operate a Cessna 402 (which is a 8 passenger) aircraft carrying passengers on a night IFR flight that is authorised in the AOC (Air Operator Certificate)?

14 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

14. You plan to fly an un-pressurized aircraft at 12,500 ft. At 10:22 Z, you climbed above 10,000 ft and you plan to cross below 10,000 ft at 1100Z. How much supplemental oxygen do you require?

15 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

15. What is the primary function of flaps?

16 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

16. How would you set the altimeter for high pressure above 31.00 in Hg when flying VFR or CVFR?

17 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

17. Which one of the following configurations would produce the lowest indicated stall speed, at wings level?

18 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

18. In coordinated turn at the same altitude, the load factor caused is due to?

19 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

19. In a bank, an aeroplane will rotate around its centre of?

20 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

20. During a normal takeoff in a conventional gear aircraft.

21 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

21. Laminar airfoil’s thickest camber is at?

22 / 100

Category: CPL – Human Factors | Section 8

22. What illusion can a pilot expect when deploying speed brakes while flying without outside references?

23 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

23. The ideal conditions for formation of radiation fog are:

24 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

24. After taking off from a MF aerodrome when may a pilot change frequencies?

25 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

25. Dropping skydivers within a built-up area requires?

26 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

26. The base of an airway begins at _____________.

27 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

27. What is the VFR weather minimum in uncontrolled airspace at 1,000 feet AGL?

 

28 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

28. Multi-engine aeroplanes which can fly over water without life preservers can fly?

29 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

29. Identify the appropriate privilege of a commercial pilot licence?

30 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

30. No person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots if the aircraft is below ____________ of a controlled aerodrome unless authorised to do so in an air traffic control clearance?

31 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

31. Identify the correct cruising altitude for a VFR aircraft flying a magnetic heading of 185° in order to maintain a track of 195°?

32 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

32. Unless conducting a takeoff, approach or landing, no person shall fly an aeroplane over a built-up area unless the aeroplane is operated at an altitude that is not lower than?

33 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

33. The frequency to use when operating at an uncontrolled airport – ATF without a published frequency would be?

34 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

34. What is the VFR weather minimum in a control zone?

35 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

35. No person shall operate an aircraft at an?

36 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

36. Which of the following statements regarding aerial activities within Class F restricted airspace is correct?

37 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

37. Class F airspace with the designation CYA is airspace within which flight by non-participating aircraft is?

38 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

38. An unpressurized aircraft may operate without supplemental oxygen?

39 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

39. An aircraft equipped with a quick-donning mask shall use an oxygen mask if the aircraft is operated at or above?

40 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

40. Above cabin pressure altitudes of _____ ft ASL supplement oxygen in an unpressurized aircraft is required for all crew members and passengers.

41 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

41. Above what altitude do pilots have to wear oxygen in a pressurized aircraft without quick donning O2 masks?

42 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

42. The use of appropriate cruising altitudes applicable to aircraft operating?

43 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

43. Flying from the cold air to the warm air, which clouds would you encounter at a cold front?

44 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

44. Subsiding air will _____________________.

45 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

45. What is the name of the front called between mP and mT?

46 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

46. Temperature will ______ and relative humidity will _______  when air subsides.

47 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

47. Relative humidity of an air mass will ________ when precipitation falls into it.

48 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

48. What are the primary conditions conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

49 / 100

Category: CPL – Human Factors | Section 8

49. A pilot encountering hypoxia initially faces which symptom?

50 / 100

Category: CPL – Human Factors | Section 8

50. Even after all traces of alcohol in the blood have disappeared, the last trace of alcohol is found?

51 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

51. What primarily causes the diurnal variation of wind?

52 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

52. What effect does turbulence caused by strong surface heating have on wind direction and speed?

53 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

53. What weather phenomenon is often associated with the zone of an upper-level front?

54 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

54. Radiation fog will be thickest if the wind speed is:

55 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

55. What are the function of a trim tabs?

56 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

56. What is the effect of weight on Va?

57 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

57. Which mixture setting wouldn’t likely cause overheating in a climb?

58 / 100

Category: CPL – Navigation and Radio Aids | Section 2

58. If on a cross country flight, you change heading by 45° to the right of track. After flying for 10 minutes, you change heading 90° to the left. How long will it take you to regain the track?

59 / 100

Category: CPL – Human Factors | Section 8

59. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness at 20,000 feet is?

60 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

60. When drag is above thrust, what happens to the aeroplane when it decelerates?

61 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

61. What affects the coefficient of lift?

62 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

62. If the wind is blowing over water from 150° at 25 knots and then starts blowing from over land. This would mean the wind direction and speed would be about __________.

63 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

63. What is the purpose of a static balance?

64 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

64. How can an operator lease an aircraft to another operator without getting a new C of R?

65 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

65. If the wind is blowing over land from 250° at 15 knots and then blows from the land to blowing over water. This would mean the wind direction and speed would be about __________.

66 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

66. The base of an air route starts from ___________.

67 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

67. Identify the yellow chevron runway marking and is an aircraft permitted to taxi onto it?

68 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

68. What is the reason for a pilot to reset the heading indicator every 15 minutes?

69 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

69. When should a pilot set the aircraft’s heading indicator to the magnetic compass in flight?

70 / 100

Category: CPL – Human Factors | Section 8

70. When rain is falling on the aircraft’s windshield, how will a mountain peak appear to a pilot?

71 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

71. A carburetor is equipped with ______ to prevent stumbling when a sudden engine acceleration happens.

72 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

72. What information does a turn coordinator display when compared to a turn and bank indicator?

73 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

73. On the ground, what is the information given by this turn coordinator?

74 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

74. In flight, what is the turn and bank indicator telling you?

75 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

75. For a flight crew members stay recent in an air taxi service, the pilot must  __________________.

76 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

76. In order to be used in an air taxi service a single-engine aircraft shall:

77 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

77. A competency check is required ___________.

78 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

78. A Medevac air operator shall not assign flight time to a flight crew member, if the flight crew member’s total time will exceed?

79 / 100

Category: CPL – Air Law and Procedures | Section 1

79. To fly single pilot IFR for an air taxi service?

80 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

80. As carburetor heat is applied to remove ice, what happens immediately?

81 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

81. What can be a consequence of a loose fuel cap?

82 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

82. When engine oil pressure drops during cruise, what happens to the blades of a constant speed propeller (that relies on counterweights)?

83 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

83. In a climb, if the pitot tube and its drain hole become blocked, the airspeed indicator will?

84 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

84. During takeoff wheelbarrowing is likely to happen?

85 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

85. Why might wheelbarrowing happen at lower speeds during takeoff compared to landing?

86 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

86. What is the primary reason an aircraft turns when it is banked?

87 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

87. The resultant of all the lift forces can be considered to be at a single point along the wing known as ____________.

88 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

88. Engine performance is affected if the mixture is not adjusted during high altitude operations because the density of air entering the carburetor _______ and the amount of fuel entering the carburetor _______.

89 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

89. What is the relationship between ground effect and induced drag?

90 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

90. What is the purpose of slots installed on the outer leading edge of a wing, positioned ahead of the ailerons?

91 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

91. Virga is associated with which phenomenon?

92 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

92. An aeroplane is gliding in a state of equilibrium. The force that balances weight is the ______________.

93 / 100

Category: CPL – Airframes, Engines, and Systems | Section 4

93. When leaning the mixture in an aircraft equipped with a fixed pitch propeller, the maximum RPM is initially reached at _____________________.

94 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

94. Terrain clearance is lowest when operating in areas of _____ temperature and _____ pressure.

95 / 100

Category: CPL – Theory of Flight | Section 5

95. During a takeoff, an aircraft may become airborne at an airspeed slower than a safe climb speed because __________________.

96 / 100

Category: CPL – Meteorology | Section 3

96. What are the conditions favouring thunderstorm formation?

97 / 100

Category: CPL – Navigation and Radio Aids | Section 2

97. Which of the following statements correctly defines ‘air position’ with respect to dead reckoning navigation?

98 / 100

Category: CPL – Human Factors | Section 8

98. A rapid acceleration can create the illusion that an aircraft is _______________.

99 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Operations | Section 7

99. A normally aspirated, propeller driven aircraft can achieve maximum range by flying at ____________.

100 / 100

Category: CPL – Flight Instruments | Section 6

100. When encountering icing conditions during flight, initiating a descent by pitching the aircraft nose downward causes the airspeed to decrease. What is the reason for this?

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